Nursing Elites

1. During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
• B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
• C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
• D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.

2. When explaining the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance to an older adult male, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure. This is crucial to ensure that the older adult male understands the process correctly, reducing the likelihood of errors in collecting the 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Checking the urine for color and texture (Choice B) is not the immediate next step as the focus should be on patient understanding first. Emptying the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container (Choice C) assumes prior knowledge on the client's part and skips the critical step of ensuring comprehension. Discarding the contents of the urinal (Choice D) is incorrect and wasteful since the urine is necessary for the 24-hour collection process.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?

• A. Dry gauze dressing
• B. Wet-to-dry dressing
• C. Transparent film dressing
• D. Hydrocolloid dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.

4. A healthcare provider has inserted an indwelling catheter for a male patient. Where should the healthcare provider tape the catheter to prevent pressure on the client's urethra at the penoscrotal junction?

• A. Lower abdomen
• B. Upper thigh
• C. Penoscrotal junction
• D. Mid-abdomen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is the correct placement to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction. Securing the catheter at the lower abdomen helps in reducing discomfort and minimizes the risk of trauma to the urethra. Placing the catheter on the upper thigh or penoscrotal junction can lead to tension on the catheter and potential discomfort for the patient. Taping the catheter to the mid-abdomen is not recommended as it does not provide the necessary support to prevent pressure on the urethra at the penoscrotal junction.

5. A nurse is developing an individualized plan of care for a patient. Which action is important for the nurse to take?

• A. Establish goals that are measurable and realistic.
• B. Set goals that are a little beyond the capabilities of the patient.
• C. Use the nurse's own judgment and not be swayed by family desires.
• D. Explain that without taking alignment risks, there can be no progress.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When developing an individualized plan of care for a patient, the nurse must set goals that are specific, measurable, achievable, realistic, and time-bound (SMART). Choice A is correct as it emphasizes the importance of establishing goals that are measurable and realistic, ensuring they are attainable within a specific timeframe. Setting goals that are beyond the capabilities of the patient (Choice B) can lead to frustration and lack of progress. Using only the nurse's judgment and disregarding family desires (Choice C) may not consider important aspects of the patient's social support and preferences. Explaining that progress requires taking alignment risks (Choice D) is not a standard approach in nursing care planning and may confuse the patient or hinder trust in the nurse's decision-making.

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