Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who reports chills and aching joints. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has an infection?

• A. WBC 15,000/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 300,000/mm³
• D. Sodium 140 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC 15,000/mm³) is a common indicator of infection as the body increases WBC production to fight off pathogens. In conditions like infections, inflammation, or stress, the WBC count can rise. The other options, hemoglobin, platelet count, and sodium levels, are not typically specific indicators of infection. Hemoglobin measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count assesses clotting ability, and sodium levels indicate electrolyte balance.

2. When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should:

• A. Use the transfer belt if the client is unsteady
• B. Walk beside the client without support
• C. Encourage the client to use a walker
• D. Hold the client's arm for support

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using a transfer belt if the client is unsteady is essential to provide added safety and support during ambulation. This device helps the nurse assist the client in maintaining balance and prevents falls. Walking beside the client without support (choice B) may not offer enough assistance for a frail, older adult who is unsteady. Encouraging the client to use a walker (choice C) could be helpful in some cases, but if the client is unsteady during ambulation, additional support like a transfer belt is more appropriate. Holding the client's arm for support (choice D) may not provide enough stability and safety compared to using a transfer belt.

3. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
• B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
• C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
• D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.

4. A nurse is reviewing the correct use of a fire extinguisher with a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse direct the client to take first?

• A. Remove the safety pin from the extinguisher.
• B. Aim the extinguisher at the base of the fire.
• C. Squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent.
• D. Sweep the extinguisher from side to side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step in using a fire extinguisher is to remove the safety pin. This action enables the extinguisher to be activated and used effectively. Choice B, aiming the extinguisher at the base of the fire, comes after removing the safety pin. Choice C, squeezing the handle to release the extinguishing agent, and choice D, sweeping the extinguisher from side to side, are subsequent steps in using a fire extinguisher and should follow removing the safety pin.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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