Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

3. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client experiences severe coughing following nasogastric tube feedings, it is crucial to verify proper tube placement. Checking the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube helps confirm the tube's correct positioning. Option A is incorrect because further action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. Option B is inappropriate as it suggests stopping the feeding without assessing the tube's placement. Option D is incorrect as injecting air into the tube may lead to further complications if the tube is not positioned correctly.

4. The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?

• A. Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clock care.
• B. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken.
• C. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen.
• D. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.

5. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

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