a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta blocker which side effect should the lpnlvn monitor for in this client
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1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

2. What action should the LPN/LVN take to prevent postoperative complications in a client who has undergone abdominal surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use an incentive spirometer regularly is crucial in preventing postoperative complications after abdominal surgery. This action helps prevent atelectasis by promoting lung expansion and improving air exchange in the lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory complications. Assisting the client in ambulating early is important for preventing issues like deep vein thrombosis but may not directly address respiratory concerns postoperatively. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can help with respiratory distress but is not as specific to preventing postoperative respiratory complications as using an incentive spirometer. While encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe is generally beneficial for lung expansion, using an incentive spirometer is more effective and targeted in preventing atelectasis after abdominal surgery.

3. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

4. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

5. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.

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