Nursing Elites

1. A client has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, and a nurse is initiating a protective environment. Which precaution should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction in the area.
• B. Place the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients.
• C. Allow the client to visit public areas freely.
• D. Ensure the client does not need any special precautions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to maintain a protective environment to prevent infections. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially if there is construction in the area, helps reduce the risk of exposure to harmful pathogens. This precaution is essential as the client's immune system is compromised post-transplant. Placing the client in a room with other immunocompromised patients (choice B) would increase the risk of infections as it exposes the client to a higher pathogen load. Allowing the client to visit public areas freely (choice C) is not recommended due to the higher risk of exposure to infections. Ensuring the client does not need any special precautions (choice D) is incorrect because clients post allogeneic stem cell transplant require protective measures to prevent complications.

2. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?

• A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
• B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
• C. Administering influenza vaccinations
• D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing for change of shift. Which document or tool should the healthcare professional use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. DAR
• D. PIE

Correct answer: A

Rationale: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating critical information during shift changes or handoffs. It helps to ensure important details about a patient's condition and care are effectively communicated. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a note-taking format used in healthcare to document patient encounters, but it is not specifically designed for shift handoffs. Choice C, DAR (Data, Action, Response), and choice D, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), are not commonly used communication tools during shift changes in healthcare settings. Therefore, the correct choice is SBAR for effective communication during shift handoffs.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which observation indicates that the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Nasal congestion
• B. Cough
• C. Sore throat
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Oxygen toxicity can manifest with symptoms like a sore throat, cough, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and fatigue. However, a sore throat can be an early indicator of oxygen toxicity and should prompt immediate attention. Nasal congestion, cough, and fatigue are not specific indicators of oxygen toxicity but could be related to other factors in a client with COPD receiving oxygen therapy.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
• B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
• D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.

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