HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?
- A. Contact
- B. Droplet
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.
2. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?
- A. Assault
- B. False imprisonment
- C. Negligence
- D. Breach of confidentiality
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.
4. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Insert the catheter at a 45° angle
- B. Place the client's arm in a dependent position
- C. Shave excess hair from the insertion site
- D. Initiate IV therapy in the veins of the hand
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.
5. Which serum blood finding in diabetic ketoacidosis alerts the nurse that immediate action is required?
- A. pH below 7.3
- B. Potassium of 5.0
- C. HCT of 60
- D. PaO2 of 79%
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A hematocrit (HCT) of 60 indicates severe dehydration, a critical condition in diabetic ketoacidosis that requires immediate intervention. Severe dehydration can lead to hypovolemic shock and organ failure. While a low pH below 7.3 is indicative of acidosis, it may not require immediate action compared to severe dehydration. A potassium level of 5.0 is within the normal range and not a critical finding in this scenario. PaO2 of 79% reflects oxygenation status, which is important but not the most critical finding requiring immediate action in diabetic ketoacidosis.
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