Nursing Elites

1. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?

• A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
• B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
• C. I have been making plans for the future.
• D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.

2. The nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has head lice (pediculosis capitis). Which information will the nurse include in the teaching session?

• A. Treatment involves using regular shampoo.
• B. Products containing lindane are not recommended.
• C. Head lice may spread to furniture and other people.
• D. Manual removal is essential in treatment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Head lice are highly contagious and can spread to furniture and other people if not treated promptly. Informing the parents about the potential spread of head lice emphasizes the importance of thorough treatment and prevention measures. Choice A is incorrect as regular shampoo is not typically effective in treating head lice. Choice B is incorrect as products containing lindane are not recommended due to safety concerns. Choice D is incorrect as manual removal, though labor-intensive, is a crucial step in effectively treating head lice infestations, but it is not the most pertinent information to include in the teaching session.

3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

4. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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