HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When ambulating a frail, older adult client, the nurse should:
- A. Use the transfer belt if the client is unsteady
- B. Walk beside the client without support
- C. Encourage the client to use a walker
- D. Hold the client's arm for support
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Using a transfer belt if the client is unsteady is essential to provide added safety and support during ambulation. This device helps the nurse assist the client in maintaining balance and prevents falls. Walking beside the client without support (choice B) may not offer enough assistance for a frail, older adult who is unsteady. Encouraging the client to use a walker (choice C) could be helpful in some cases, but if the client is unsteady during ambulation, additional support like a transfer belt is more appropriate. Holding the client's arm for support (choice D) may not provide enough stability and safety compared to using a transfer belt.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to transfer a client who can bear weight on one leg from the bed to a chair. After securing a safe environment, which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take next?
- A. Assess the client for orthostatic hypotension
- B. Obtain a gait belt
- C. Ensure the client has proper footwear
- D. Ask the client to perform range-of-motion exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client for orthostatic hypotension is the priority before transferring a client who can bear weight on one leg. This assessment helps identify the risk of dizziness or fainting when the client moves from a supine to an upright position. Obtaining a gait belt may be necessary for the transfer, but assessing for orthostatic hypotension comes first to ensure the safety of the client. Ensuring the client has proper footwear is important for preventing falls during ambulation but is not the immediate next step in this situation. Asking the client to perform range-of-motion exercises is not necessary before the transfer and does not address the immediate safety concern of orthostatic hypotension.
3. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?
- A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
- C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
- D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.
4. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Morphine sulfate
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Promethazine (Phenergan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
- D. Crepitus around the insertion site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.
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