Nursing Elites

1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

2. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

5. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

Similar Questions