a client with guillain barre is in a non responsive state yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent what should the nurse document to mo
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

2. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

3. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.

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