HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Increased urine output
- B. Decreased blood pressure
- C. Increased heart rate
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.
2. When using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position
- B. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
- C. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output
- D. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This calculation helps ensure an accurate measurement of the client's actual urine output by accounting for the irrigation fluid introduced into the catheter. Placing the client in a side-lying position (Choice A) is not directly related to the irrigation procedure. Instilling a specific volume of irrigation fluid (Choice B) may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's order. Using a 20 mL syringe for irrigation (Choice D) is a matter of equipment choice and does not directly impact the calculation of urine output in this context.
3. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?
- A. Monitor the client for pain in the suprapubic region.
- B. Ensure the client is free of metal objects.
- C. Administer 240 mL (8 oz) of oral contrast before the procedure.
- D. Assist the client with a bowel cleansing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.
5. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access