Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Increased urine output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

2. When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?

• A. It is not a normal part of aging.
• B. It often follows relocation to new surroundings.
• C. It is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease.
• D. It cannot be prevented or cured by adequate sleep alone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.

3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

4. What action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a postoperative client with a history of poor nutritional intake who needs care for wound healing?

• A. Provide a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day.
• B. Increase carbohydrate intake to 50% of daily calories.
• C. Administer high-dose vitamin supplements.
• D. Ensure a daily intake of 1000 calories.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To promote wound healing in a postoperative client with poor nutritional intake, the nurse should include a protein intake of 1.5 g/kg of body weight per day in the plan of care. Proteins are essential for tissue repair and wound healing. Increasing carbohydrate intake or administering high-dose vitamin supplements may not directly promote wound healing. Ensuring a daily intake of 1000 calories may not provide adequate nutrients for optimal wound healing.

5. The nurse is evaluating client learning about a low-sodium diet. Selection of which meal would indicate to the LPN that this client understands the dietary restrictions?

• A. Tossed salad with low-sodium dressing, bacon, and tomato sandwich.
• B. New England clam chowder, unsalted crackers, fresh fruit salad.
• C. Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream.
• D. Macaroni and cheese, diet Coke, and a slice of cherry pie.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skim milk, turkey salad, roll, and vanilla ice cream. These items are low in sodium, making it a suitable meal for someone on a low-sodium diet. Skim milk, turkey salad, and vanilla ice cream are naturally low in sodium, while the roll can be selected as a low-sodium option. Choices A, B, and D contain items that are typically high in sodium, such as bacon, clam chowder, crackers, and cheese, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet.

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