Nursing Elites

1. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

2. A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?

• A. Hydrogel dressing.
• B. Exudate absorber.
• C. Wet-to-moist dressing.
• D. Transparent adhesive film.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial dressing for a stage four pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is a wet-to-moist dressing. This dressing helps to provide moisture, soften necrotic tissue, and prepare the wound bed for healing. It promotes autolytic debridement and can help manage malodorous drainage. Once the necrotic tissue is loosened, other advanced dressings like hydrogel or alginate may be used in the wound bed to facilitate healing.

3. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
• D. Altered tissue perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.

4. One week after being told that she has terminal cancer with a life expectancy of 3 weeks, a female client tells the nurse, 'I think I will plan a big party for all my friends.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. You may not have enough energy before long to hold a big party.
• B. Do you mean to say that you want to plan your funeral and wake?
• C. Planning a party and thinking about all your friends sounds like fun.
• D. You should be thinking about spending your last days with your family.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting goals that bring pleasure is appropriate and should be encouraged by the nurse. Choice A is discouraging and focuses on limitations. Choice B jumps to a conclusion and is not in line with the client's statement. Choice D dictates what the client should be doing, which is not respectful of the client's autonomy. Therefore, the most appropriate response is C, as it acknowledges the client's wishes and provides positive reinforcement without perpetuating denial.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum sodium level.
• B. Serum potassium level.
• C. Serum calcium level.
• D. Serum glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

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