Nursing Elites

1. Earlier this morning, an elderly Hispanic female was discharged to a LTC facility. The family members are now gathered in the hallway outside her room. What is the best action?

• A. Ask the family to wait in the cafeteria while the next of kin makes the necessary arrangements
• B. Provide space and privacy for the family to share their concerns about the client’s discharge
• C. Ask the social worker to encourage the family to clear the hallway
• D. Explain to the family the client’s need for privacy so that she can make independent decisions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, providing space and privacy for the family allows them to openly discuss their concerns regarding the client’s discharge. It respects the family's need for support, communication, and involvement in the decision-making process, ultimately fostering a more effective and compassionate care environment.

2. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Dependent rubor.
• B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
• C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
• D. Pain in the legs when walking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.

3. When assessing for orthostatic hypotension during blood pressure measurement, what action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Position the client supine for a few minutes
• B. Assist the client to stand at the bedside
• C. Apply the blood pressure cuff securely
• D. Record the client’s pulse rate and rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for orthostatic hypotension, the initial step is to position the client supine for a few minutes. This allows the body to adjust to the supine position before assessing blood pressure changes that may indicate orthostatic hypotension. By observing the blood pressure after the client has rested supine, the nurse can accurately assess for any drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the initial step in assessing for orthostatic hypotension, which is ensuring the client is positioned correctly to detect blood pressure changes upon standing.

4. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

• A. Is voiding normally.
• B. Has urinary retention.
• C. Has developed renal failure.
• D. Needs an indwelling catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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