which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.

2. What information should the nurse offer a client who uses herbal therapies to supplement their diet and manage common ailments about the general use of herbal supplements?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is essential for clients using herbal therapies to obtain herbs from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements. This recommendation is crucial because quality control processes help in maintaining the purity and effectiveness of the herbal supplements. Option A is incorrect as it provides a negative and inaccurate generalization about herbs. Option B is also incorrect as there is existing evidence on the safety and efficacy of certain herbal supplements. Option D is not the most relevant information to offer initially to a client seeking advice on the general use of herbal supplements.

3. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.

4. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

Similar Questions

A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?
What is the main purpose of the working phase of the nurse-patient relationship?
Earlier this morning, an elderly Hispanic female was discharged to a LTC facility. The family members are now gathered in the hallway outside her room. What is the best action?
When making the bed of a client who needs a bed cradle, which action should the nurse include?
A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses