Nursing Elites

1. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client’s safety?

• A. Encourage the client to use oxygen continuously
• B. Monitor the client’s respiratory rate and effort
• C. Set the oxygen flow rate at 6 liters per minute
• D. Teach the client to avoid wearing wool blankets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring the client’s respiratory rate and effort is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygen therapy and prevent complications such as respiratory depression. This intervention helps the nurse promptly detect any deterioration in the client's respiratory status and take necessary actions to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging continuous oxygen use (Choice A) may lead to oxygen toxicity. Setting the oxygen flow rate at a specific level (Choice C) without individual assessment can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Teaching the client to avoid wearing wool blankets (Choice D) is unrelated to the safe use of oxygen therapy.

2. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Flushing of the skin
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

3. When assessing a male client, the nurse finds that he is fatigued and experiencing muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Based on these findings, the nurse plans to check the client’s laboratory values to validate the existence of which condition?

• A. Hyperphosphatemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hypermagnesemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle weakness, leg cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias are classic manifestations of hypokalemia. Potassium plays a vital role in muscle function and cardiac conduction, so a deficiency can lead to these symptoms. Checking the client’s laboratory values for potassium levels will help confirm the presence of hypokalemia.

4. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?

• A. Blood clots
• B. Ecchymotic areas
• C. Jaundice
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.

5. What action should be taken when adding sterile liquids to a sterile field?

• A. Use an expired sterile liquid if the bottle is sealed and unopened.
• B. Consider the sterile field contaminated if it becomes wet during the procedure.
• C. Remove the container cap and place it with the inside facing up on the sterile field.
• D. Hold the container low and pour the solution into a receptacle at the front of the sterile field.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a sterile field becomes wet or damp during a procedure, it is considered contaminated as moisture can allow organisms to wick from the surface and compromise the sterility of the field. It is essential to maintain the integrity of the sterile field to prevent infections and ensure patient safety.

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