Nursing Elites

1. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

• A. Monitor daily urine output volume
• B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
• C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
• D. Review food labels for sodium content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

2. When assessing a client with a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit, the nurse notes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Confirm the finding by further assessing the client for jugular vein distention.
• B. Offer the client high-protein snacks between regularly scheduled mealtimes.
• C. Continue the planned nursing interventions to restore the client's fluid volume.
• D. Change the plan of care to include interventions for impaired skin integrity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the nurse observes that the client's skin over the sternum 'tents' when gently pinched, it is a classic sign of fluid volume deficit. This finding indicates dehydration and the need to restore the client's fluid volume. Therefore, the appropriate action for the nurse is to continue the planned nursing interventions aimed at addressing the fluid deficit. Choice A is incorrect as jugular vein distention is associated with fluid overload, not deficit. Choice B is incorrect as offering high-protein snacks does not directly address the fluid volume deficit. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to address the fluid deficit before addressing skin integrity issues.

3. The healthcare professional is administering an intermittent infusion of an antibiotic to a client with an antecubital saline lock. After opening the roller clamp on the IV tubing, the alarm on the infusion pump indicates an obstruction. What action should be taken first?

• A. Check for a blood return.
• B. Reposition the client's arm.
• C. Remove the IV site dressing.
• D. Flush the lock with saline.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client's arm is the initial action to take when encountering an obstruction with an antecubital saline lock. Repositioning may correct any bending at the elbow that could be causing the obstruction, allowing for smoother infusion flow. Checking for a blood return, removing the IV site dressing, or flushing the lock with saline would be subsequent actions once the obstruction is addressed. Checking for a blood return is done to confirm proper placement, removing the IV site dressing is necessary for site assessment, and flushing the lock with saline helps maintain patency but should not be the first action when an obstruction is detected.

4. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important?

• A. Keep the drainage system at chest level.
• B. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped at all times.
• C. Strip the chest tube every shift.
• D. Ensure that the chest tube is connected to a water-seal drainage system.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial intervention when caring for a client with a chest tube is to ensure that the chest tube is connected to a water-seal drainage system (D). This system helps maintain proper lung expansion and prevents complications. Keeping the drainage system at chest level (A) is important to facilitate drainage, but not as critical as ensuring the connection to the drainage system. Clamping the chest tube (B) is unnecessary and can lead to serious issues. Stripping the chest tube (C) is an outdated practice and can cause harm rather than benefit.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

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