which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia
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HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

2. While observing an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) providing a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client, the nurse notes the UAP soaking the client’s foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to remind the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to dry between the client’s toes completely. Failing to dry between the toes can lead to skin breakdown due to excessive moisture accumulation. Proper drying is essential to maintain skin integrity and prevent complications in the client's care. Removing the basin of water immediately may disrupt the care process and not address the root cause of the issue. Advising about potential skin damage is not as direct and actionable as reminding to dry between the toes. Adding skin cream to the water may not be appropriate without specific orders and can potentially worsen the situation by increasing moisture.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

4. The nurse is administering the 0900 medications to a client who was admitted during the night. Which client statement indicates that the nurse should further assess the medication order?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement that 'This is a new pill I have never taken before' indicates the need for further assessment by the nurse to ensure the medication is correct and safe. Choices A, B, and C do not raise immediate concerns about the medication order; therefore, they are incorrect. Choice A simply provides information about the client's usual medication schedule, choice B is related to the cost of the pills, and choice C expresses fatigue from taking pills, but none of these statements suggest a potential issue with the new medication.

5. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.

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