the nurse identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial thickness second degree and full thickness third degree burns what interventio
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Quizlet

1. The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.

2. A male healthcare provider is assigned to care for a female Muslim client. When the provider offers to bathe the client, the client requests that a female healthcare provider perform this task. How should the male healthcare provider respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most culturally sensitive response is for the male healthcare provider to ask one of the female healthcare providers to bathe the client. This approach respects the client's cultural and spiritual preferences by ensuring that their modesty and beliefs are honored during the care process. Choice A is incorrect as it puts the responsibility on the client to seek help, while the provider should take the initiative to arrange for appropriate care. Choice C is incorrect as it delays the assistance unnecessarily. Choice D, although helpful in maintaining modesty, does not address the client's request for a female healthcare provider to perform the task.

3. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which clinical finding would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes (D) are a common clinical finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In dehydration, there is insufficient fluid in the body, leading to dry mucous membranes due to decreased saliva production. Bounding pulse (A) is associated with fluid volume excess, not deficit. Bradycardia (B) and oliguria (C) are not typical clinical findings of fluid volume deficit but may be seen in fluid volume excess or other conditions.

5. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.

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