a client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis dka which intervention should the nurse implement first
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering regular insulin IV (A) is the initial intervention for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels. This is vital in reversing the ketosis and acidosis seen in DKA. Administering IV fluids (B) helps to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering sodium bicarbonate (C) and furosemide (D) may be necessary depending on the client's condition, but insulin administration takes precedence in the management of DKA.

2. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

3. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

4. After an adult had an indwelling catheter removed, the nurse catheterizes them as ordered and obtains 200 cc of urine. What is the best interpretation of this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The finding of obtaining 200 cc of urine after catheterization indicates urinary retention, as the bladder did not empty completely after the first void. This situation may require further assessment and intervention to address the issue of incomplete bladder emptying. Choice A is incorrect because voiding normally would indicate a larger amount of urine output. Choice C is incorrect as renal failure would typically present with other signs and symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as the presence of urinary retention does not necessarily mean the need for an indwelling catheter immediately.

5. The daughter of an older woman who became depressed following the death of her husband asks, 'My mother was always well-adjusted until my father died. Will she tend to be sick from now on?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The successful resolution of a developmental crisis in the later years involves acceptance and adaptation, and the daughter should be reassured that recovery is likely.

Similar Questions

The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?
The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?
The healthcare professional is obtaining a lie-sit-stand blood pressure reading on a client. Which action is most important for the healthcare professional to implement?
While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses