Nursing Elites

1. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

2. The charge nurse observes that a demographic screen has been left open on a hallway computer by a nurse who is responding to a call light while the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is involved in a personal phone call. Which action should the charge nurse take first?

• A. Page the unit manager to address the situation.
• B. Close the demographic screen on the computer.
• C. Instruct the UAP to end the phone call immediately.
• D. Send a UAP into the client's room to relieve the nurse.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The charge nurse's first action should be to close the demographic screen on the computer to protect patient confidentiality and prevent unauthorized access to sensitive information. This immediate response addresses the breach of patient privacy and ensures that patient data is secure, setting the right priority in managing the situation.

3. Which client care task requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as mandated by the Standard Precautions protocol?

• A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter.
• B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction.
• C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection.
• D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer's disease.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because emptying a urinary catheter drainage bag exposes the nurse to body fluids, necessitating the use of barrier gloves as per Standard Precautions to prevent potential infection transmission.

4. A client is diagnosed with primary hypertension. Which assessment finding is most commonly associated with this diagnosis?

• A. Headache
• B. Dizziness
• C. Fatigue
• D. Edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Headache (A) is the most commonly associated symptom with primary hypertension due to increased pressure in the blood vessels, leading to headaches. While dizziness (B), fatigue (C), and edema (D) may also occur in hypertension, headache is the most frequently reported symptom among individuals with primary hypertension.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

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