Nursing Elites

1. The client is being instructed on the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler. Which instruction should be provided to ensure the optimal benefits from the drug?

• A. Fill your lungs with air through your mouth and then compress the inhaler.
• B. Compress the inhaler while slowly breathing in through your mouth.
• C. Compress the inhaler while inhaling quickly through your nose.
• D. Exhale completely after compressing the inhaler and then inhale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for using a metered-dose inhaler involves compressing the inhaler while slowly breathing in through the mouth. This method helps ensure that the medication reaches deep into the lungs, allowing for optimal bronchodilation effect. Inhaling quickly through the nose or filling the lungs with air before compressing the inhaler are not recommended techniques for using a metered-dose inhaler effectively.

2. At a motor vehicle collision site, a nurse applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely until emergency personnel arrive. Subsequently, the client undergoes leg amputation and sues the nurse for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

• A. The Patient's Bill of Rights protects clients from malicious intents, so the nurse could lose the case.
• B. The lawsuit may be settled out of court, but the nurse's license is unlikely to be revoked.
• C. There will be no judgment against the nurse, as their actions were protected under the Good Samaritan Act.
• D. The client will win because the four elements of negligence (duty, breach, causation, and damages) cannot be proved.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act shields healthcare professionals who act in good faith and offer reasonable care from malpractice claims, irrespective of the client's outcome. In this scenario, the nurse stopping to render aid at the accident scene and applying pressure to the bleeding groin wound would likely be covered by the Good Samaritan Act, protecting the nurse from legal repercussions related to the subsequent leg amputation.

3. What action should the nurse implement to prepare a client for the potential side effects of a newly prescribed medication?

• A. Assess the client for health alterations that may be impacted by the effects of the medication
• B. Teach the client how to administer the medication to promote the best absorption
• C. Administer a half dose and observe the client for side effects before administering a full dosage
• D. Encourage the client to drink plenty of fluids to promote effective drug distribution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating a new medication, the nurse should conduct a thorough assessment of the client to identify any pre-existing health conditions or risk factors that could be affected by the medication. This assessment helps in establishing a baseline for monitoring potential side effects and determining the medication's appropriateness for the client. Choice B is incorrect as teaching the client how to administer the medication does not directly address preparing for potential side effects. Choice C is incorrect because administering a half dose without a proper assessment could be unsafe. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging fluid intake is not directly related to preparing for potential side effects of a medication.

4. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?

• A. Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals
• B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
• D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is a good first step to understand eating habits before making any dietary or activity changes.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

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