Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?

• A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
• B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
• C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
• D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.

2. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?

• A. To promote comfort.
• B. To promote drainage from the operation site.
• C. To promote thoracic expansion.
• D. To prevent circulatory overload.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

4. A community hospital is opening a mental health services department. Which document should the nurse use to develop the unit's nursing guidelines?

• A. Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990
• B. ANA Code of Ethics with Interpretative Statements
• C. ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice
• D. Patient's Bill of Rights of 1990

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ANA's Scope and Standards of Nursing Practice are essential guidelines for nursing practice in various specialties, including mental health. The document outlines the expectations and responsibilities of nurses in providing high-quality care within their specific practice areas. In the context of opening a mental health services department, using the Scope and Standards specific to psychiatric–mental health nursing would ensure that the unit's nursing guidelines align with best practices and professional standards in mental health care. Choices A, B, and D are not focused on providing specific guidelines for nursing practice in a mental health services department, making them incorrect options.

5. The healthcare provider receives a report that a client with an indwelling urinary catheter has an output of 150 mL for the previous 6-hour shift. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Check the drainage tubing for a kink
• B. Review the intake and output record
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Give the client 8 oz of water to drink

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first intervention should be to check the drainage tubing for a kink. This step is crucial as any kinks in the tubing could obstruct urine flow, leading to a decreased output. By ensuring the tubing is free from any obstructions, the healthcare provider can address a potential mechanical issue causing the low output before considering other interventions. Reviewing the intake and output record may provide valuable information but should come after ensuring the tubing is clear. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done later if needed, but the immediate concern is to check for any obstructions. Giving the client water to drink may be necessary depending on the assessment findings, but addressing a possible kink in the tubing takes precedence.

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