Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider who is preparing to give an adolescent client a prescribed antipsychotic medication notes that parental consent has not been obtained. Which action should the provider take?

• A. Review the chart for a signed consent for medication administration.
• B. Obtain parental consent before giving the medication.
• C. Do not give the medication and document the reason.
• D. Complete an incident report and notify the adolescent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is for the provider not to administer the medication and to document the reason. In the case of a minor, parental consent is required for medical treatment, including medication administration. It is important to follow legal and ethical guidelines to ensure the adolescent's well-being and rights are protected. Choice A is incorrect because simply reviewing the chart does not address the lack of parental consent. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining parental consent should be done before medication administration. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the adolescent is not the appropriate action in this situation, as parental consent is legally required for a minor's medical treatment.

2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

3. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Jugular vein distention.
• B. Crackles in the lungs.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Hepatomegaly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.

4. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
• C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.

5. What action should the nurse take after applying gloves to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique?

• A. Empty the client's urinary drainage bag.
• B. Draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe.
• C. Secure the client's catheter to the drainage tubing.
• D. Use aseptic technique to instill the irrigating solution.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After applying gloves to irrigate an indwelling urinary catheter using an open technique, the next step for the nurse is to draw up the irrigating solution into the syringe. This step is crucial as it ensures that the solution is ready to be instilled through the catheter to maintain its patency and prevent blockages. Option A is incorrect as emptying the client's urinary drainage bag is not the immediate next step in the irrigation process. Option C is incorrect as securing the client's catheter to the drainage tubing is not necessary at this stage. Option D is incorrect as the question pertains to the action immediately after applying gloves and does not involve instilling the irrigating solution yet.

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