Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

3. When a health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation because the older adult is in a condition to make such decisions.
• B. Because the client is mentally incompetent, the son does not have the right to waive informed consent for her.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from the client before proceeding with any medical intervention. If informed consent is withheld and the treatment is carried out without the client's agreement, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery. This legal principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Despite the son's wishes to withhold information from his mother, the client must be informed of the proposed treatment and given the opportunity to consent or refuse based on complete information provided by the healthcare team.

4. A male client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound and is being discharged home. The client lives at home with his wife and their adolescent daughter. What discharge instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Use disposable plates and utensils.
• B. Stay in a room with the door closed.
• C. Dispose of soiled dressings in plastic bags that are securely closed.
• D. Others who are in the same room with the client should wear a mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is on contact precautions due to an infected draining wound, it is important to prevent contact with wound secretions. Therefore, disposing of soiled dressings in securely closed plastic bags helps contain and prevent the spread of infectious material, reducing the risk of transmission to others in the household.

5. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

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