Nursing Elites

1. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
• B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
• C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
• D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

2. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.

4. A client has a nursing diagnosis of 'spiritual distress.' What intervention is best for the nurse to implement when caring for this client?

• A. Use distraction techniques during times of spiritual stress and crisis.
• B. Reassure the client that their faith will be regained with time and support.
• C. Consult with the staff chaplain and request that the chaplain visit with the client.
• D. Use reflective listening techniques when the client expresses spiritual doubts.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is going through spiritual distress, employing reflective listening techniques is crucial. This method allows the client to voice their concerns and emotions, providing them with a supportive environment to explore their feelings. Options A and B do not directly address the client's spiritual distress and may undermine the client's feelings. While option C involves a chaplain, using reflective listening directly involves the nurse in addressing and supporting the client's spiritual concerns.

5. A female client with chronic back pain has been taking muscle relaxants and analgesics to manage the discomfort, but is now experiencing an acute episode of pain that is not relieved by this medication regimen. The client tells the nurse that she does not want to have back surgery for a herniated intervertebral disk, and reports that she has found acupuncture effective in resolving past acute episodes. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Surgery removes the disk and is the only treatment that can totally resolve the pain
• B. The medication regimen you previously used should be re-evaluated for dose adjustment
• C. Massage and hot pack treatments are less invasive and can provide temporary relief
• D. Acupuncture is a complementary therapy that is often effective for management of pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the effectiveness of acupuncture is important, as the client has reported its success in managing her pain previously.

Similar Questions