HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The client is being taught how to perform active range of motion (ROM) exercises. To exercise the hinge joints, which action should the client be instructed to perform?
- A. Tilt the pelvis forwards and backwards
- B. Bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus
- C. Turn the head to the right and left
- D. Extend the arm at the side and rotate it in circles
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hinge joints, like the elbow, primarily allow movement in one direction, in this case, bending the arm. The correct action to exercise hinge joints is to bend the arm by flexing the ulnar to the humerus. This movement specifically targets the hinge joint and promotes its range of motion. Choices A, C, and D involve movements that do not specifically target hinge joints. Tilt the pelvis involves the ball-and-socket joints of the hip, turning the head involves the pivot joint of the neck, and extending the arm and rotating it in circles involve multiple joints including ball-and-socket and pivot joints.
2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Assess skin turgor
- C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
- D. Check urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.
4. Prior to Mr. Landon undergoing a tracheostomy, what is the top nursing priority?
- A. Shaving the neck.
- B. Establishing a means of communication.
- C. Inserting a Foley catheter.
- D. Starting an IV.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Before Mr. Landon undergoes a tracheostomy, the top nursing priority is to establish a means of communication. This is essential to ensure that Mr. Landon can effectively communicate his needs during and after the procedure. Shaving the neck (Choice A) may be necessary for the tracheostomy but is not the top priority. Inserting a Foley catheter (Choice C) and starting an IV (Choice D) are important nursing interventions but are not the priority before a tracheostomy procedure, where communication is key for patient safety and comfort.
5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
- C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
- D. Limit intake of high-protein foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.
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