Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care.
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice.
• C. Encourage the wife to visit during and after painful treatments are completed.
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During this challenging time of dealing with a terminal cancer diagnosis, involving the wife in the care process can be highly beneficial. By asking the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care, it allows her to feel more in control and connected. This approach fosters a collaborative care environment, ensuring that the wife's preferences and needs are taken into consideration. Providing information about hospice (choice B) may be premature at this stage and could potentially overwhelm the family. Encouraging the wife to visit during and after painful treatments (choice C) may not address her need for involvement in decision-making. Referring the wife to a support group (choice D) is helpful but may not directly involve her in the care process of her husband.

2. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
• C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.

3. A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
• B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
• C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.

4. When caring for an older incontinent client at risk for infection, which intervention is best for the nurse to implement based on the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection?

• A. Maintain standard precautions.
• B. Initiate contact isolation measures.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
• D. Instruct the client in the use of adult diapers.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for an older incontinent client at risk for infection is to maintain standard precautions. Standard precautions, which include proper handwashing, are essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission in vulnerable clients. Initiating contact isolation measures may not be necessary for all clients, and inserting an indwelling urinary catheter should be avoided unless medically necessary to prevent additional risks of infection. Instructing the client in the use of adult diapers is not an appropriate nursing intervention to prevent infection.

5. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

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