Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care.
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice.
• C. Encourage the wife to visit during and after painful treatments are completed.
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During this challenging time of dealing with a terminal cancer diagnosis, involving the wife in the care process can be highly beneficial. By asking the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care, it allows her to feel more in control and connected. This approach fosters a collaborative care environment, ensuring that the wife's preferences and needs are taken into consideration. Providing information about hospice (choice B) may be premature at this stage and could potentially overwhelm the family. Encouraging the wife to visit during and after painful treatments (choice C) may not address her need for involvement in decision-making. Referring the wife to a support group (choice D) is helpful but may not directly involve her in the care process of her husband.

2. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?

• A. Blood clots
• B. Ecchymotic areas
• C. Jaundice
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with intractable pain. What instruction should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is preparing to assist this client with a bed bath?

• A. Take measures to promote as much comfort as possible.
• B. Report any signs of drug addiction to the nurse immediately.
• C. Wait until the client's pain is gone before assisting with personal care.
• D. This client's pain will be difficult to manage, as the cause is unknown.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) preparing to assist a client with intractable pain is to take measures to promote as much comfort as possible. Intractable pain is resistant to relief, so ensuring comfort during all activities, including a bed bath, is crucial to enhance the client's well-being and quality of care.

4. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

5. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

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