Nursing Elites

1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care.
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice.
• C. Encourage the wife to visit during and after painful treatments are completed.
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During this challenging time of dealing with a terminal cancer diagnosis, involving the wife in the care process can be highly beneficial. By asking the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care, it allows her to feel more in control and connected. This approach fosters a collaborative care environment, ensuring that the wife's preferences and needs are taken into consideration. Providing information about hospice (choice B) may be premature at this stage and could potentially overwhelm the family. Encouraging the wife to visit during and after painful treatments (choice C) may not address her need for involvement in decision-making. Referring the wife to a support group (choice D) is helpful but may not directly involve her in the care process of her husband.

2. Which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a client at high risk for the development of postoperative thrombus formation?

• A. Instruct the client in the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed during all meals.
• C. Use aseptic technique when changing the dressing.
• D. Encourage frequent ambulation in the hallway.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Thrombus formation is a risk for clients who are immobile postoperatively. Encouraging frequent ambulation helps to prevent stasis in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. This intervention promotes circulation and prevents blood clot formation, making it the most important intervention in this situation.

3. Ten minutes after signing an operative permit for a fractured hip, an older client states, 'The aliens will be coming to get me soon!' and falls asleep. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Make the client comfortable and allow the client to sleep.
• B. Assess the client's neurologic status.
• C. Notify the surgeon about the comment.
• D. Ask the client's family to co-sign the operative permit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client's neurologic status next. The client's statement about aliens and subsequent falling asleep could be indicative of a potential neurological issue such as confusion or altered mental status. It is essential to assess the client's neurological status to determine the underlying cause of the client's statement and behavior. This assessment will help the nurse identify any potential cognitive impairment or neurological deficits that may need immediate attention, ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Notifying the surgeon or involving the client's family can be considered later, but the priority is to assess the client's neurologic status to address any immediate concerns.

4. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
• B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
• C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
• D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.

5. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Use an electronic sphygmomanometer to take the BP every 30 minutes.
• B. Retake the blood pressure in the same arm, deflating the cuff slowly.
• C. Ask another healthcare provider to recheck the blood pressure to compare results.
• D. Obtain another blood pressure cuff and retake the blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.

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