HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Flushing of the skin
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase fluid intake to 3 liters per day.
- B. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Increase protein intake to promote healing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Limiting sodium intake to 2 grams per day (B) is a crucial dietary instruction for clients with heart failure. It helps manage fluid retention and reduces the workload on the heart. Excessive sodium can lead to fluid retention, worsening heart failure symptoms. Increasing fluid intake (A) can further exacerbate fluid overload in heart failure patients. Avoiding foods high in potassium (C) is not necessary unless the client has hyperkalemia; in heart failure, potassium restriction is not a primary dietary concern. Increasing protein intake (D) is not the priority for heart failure management; focusing on sodium restriction is more beneficial.
3. A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
- B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
- C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
- D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.
4. One week after being told that she has terminal cancer with a life expectancy of 3 weeks, a female client tells the nurse, 'I think I will plan a big party for all my friends.' How should the nurse respond?
- A. You may not have enough energy before long to hold a big party.
- B. Do you mean to say that you want to plan your funeral and wake?
- C. Planning a party and thinking about all your friends sounds like fun.
- D. You should be thinking about spending your last days with your family.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Setting goals that bring pleasure is appropriate and should be encouraged by the nurse. Choice A is discouraging and focuses on limitations. Choice B jumps to a conclusion and is not in line with the client's statement. Choice D dictates what the client should be doing, which is not respectful of the client's autonomy. Therefore, the most appropriate response is C, as it acknowledges the client's wishes and provides positive reinforcement without perpetuating denial.
5. The nurse-manager of a skilled nursing (chronic care) unit is instructing UAPs on ways to prevent complications of immobility. Which intervention should be included in this instruction?
- A. Perform range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
- B. Decrease the client's fluid intake to prevent diarrhea.
- C. Massage the client's legs to reduce the occurrence of embolisms.
- D. Turn the client from side to back every shift.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing range-of-motion exercises is essential in preventing contractures, which are common complications of immobility. These exercises help maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength, reducing the risk of contractures that can lead to functional limitations or pain for the client. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Decreasing fluid intake does not prevent immobility complications, but it can lead to dehydration. Massaging the client's legs does not directly address the prevention of immobility complications like contractures. Turning the client from side to back every shift is important for preventing pressure ulcers but does not directly address complications of immobility like contractures.
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