what assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. While changing a client’s post-operative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given a positive MRSA result, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating contact precautions is crucial in this situation to prevent the spread of MRSA infection. MRSA is a highly contagious bacterium that can spread through direct contact with an infected wound or by touching contaminated surfaces. By implementing contact precautions, the nurse can help contain the infection and protect other patients, healthcare workers, and visitors from being exposed to MRSA.

5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

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