Nursing Elites

1. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

2. You are assigned to teach a student how to suction an adult patient with a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions by the student would be incorrect?

• A. Pre-oxygenating the patient with a Resuscibag at 100% O2 several times before suctioning.
• B. Maintaining wall suction pressure at 110-150 mmHg.
• C. Not suctioning for greater than 10-15 seconds at a time.
• D. Applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The incorrect action by the student is applying gentle intermittent pressure and rotating the catheter during the insertion phase of suctioning. This technique can cause trauma to the tracheal walls, increasing the risk of injury to the patient. It is essential to perform suctioning gently and without rotation to prevent complications in patients with a tracheostomy. Pre-oxygenating the patient, maintaining appropriate suction pressure, and limiting suctioning time are all correct actions when suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy.

3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

4. The healthcare provider is aware that malnutrition is a common problem among clients served by a community health clinic for the homeless. Which laboratory value is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition?

• A. Low serum albumin level
• B. Low serum transferrin level
• C. High hemoglobin level
• D. High cholesterol level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low serum albumin level is the most reliable indicator of chronic protein malnutrition. Serum albumin levels reflect long-term protein status, and a significantly lowered level usually indicates ongoing protein deficiency. Other laboratory values, such as serum transferrin, hemoglobin, or cholesterol levels, may be affected by various factors and conditions, but serum albumin is a more specific marker for chronic protein malnutrition.

5. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

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