HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?
- A. Scattered macules on the face
- B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
- C. Smooth nail texture
- D. Presence of skin tenting
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.
2. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]
- A. 4 tablets
- B. 3 tablets
- C. 2 tablets
- D. 1 tablet
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.
3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription for levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
- B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next day.
- C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
- D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To maintain a therapeutic level of medication, the nurse should administer the missed dose as soon as possible and adjust the administration schedule to prevent dangerously high levels of the drug in the bloodstream (D). It is important to document the reason for the delayed dose. Contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form (A) may cause unnecessary delays. Notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report (C) should be done after addressing the immediate medication administration issue. Administering the medication at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next day (B) could lead to suboptimal therapeutic levels and potential complications.
4. The UAP is positioning a newly admitted client with a seizure disorder in a supine position. The UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
- B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
- C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
- D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent the risk of suffocation, soft blankets are preferred over pillows for padding side rails in clients with seizure disorders. Pillows can pose a suffocation hazard, especially during a seizure episode when the client's movements may be uncontrolled. Instructing the UAP to use soft blankets instead of pillows is crucial for ensuring the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect because pillows can be hazardous during a seizure. Choice C is incorrect as side-lying position may not be appropriate for a client with a seizure disorder. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the safety concern related to using pillows.
5. The healthcare provider plans to foster a therapeutic relationship with the patient utilizing therapeutic techniques of communication. It is most important that the provider:
- A. Work on establishing rapport with the patient.
- B. Use humor to lighten emotionally charged topics of discussion.
- C. Empathize with the patient when the patient shares sad feelings.
- D. Demonstrate respect when discussing emotionally charged topics.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In fostering a therapeutic relationship, demonstrating respect is essential as it helps the patient feel valued and understood. Respectful communication contributes to building trust and a safe environment for open and honest discussions.
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