Nursing Elites

1. What assessment finding places a client at risk for problems associated with impaired skin integrity?

• A. Scattered macules on the face
• B. Capillary refill of 5 seconds
• C. Smooth nail texture
• D. Presence of skin tenting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A capillary refill time greater than 3 seconds indicates poor perfusion, leading to impaired skin integrity. Delayed capillary refill can compromise blood flow to the skin, increasing the risk of pressure ulcers or wounds due to reduced tissue perfusion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because scattered macules on the face, smooth nail texture, and presence of skin tenting are not direct indicators of impaired skin integrity or risk for skin problems.

2. A client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline is instructed to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available, which dosing schedule should the nurse advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Theophylline should be administered on a regular around-the-clock schedule to provide the best bronchodilating effect and reduce the potential for adverse effects. The correct dosing schedule of 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight ensures that the client receives consistent dosing throughout the day. Other options do not provide the necessary around-the-clock coverage. It's important to note that food may affect the absorption of the medication, which is why the dosing schedule should not be tied to meal times.

3. When taking a client's blood pressure, the healthcare professional is unable to distinguish the point at which the first sound was heard. What is the best action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Deflate the cuff completely and immediately reattempt the reading.
• B. Reinflate the cuff completely and leave it inflated for 90 to 110 seconds before taking the second reading.
• C. Deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading.
• D. Document the exact level visualized on the sphygmomanometer where the first fluctuation was seen.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when unable to distinguish the point of the first sound during blood pressure measurement is to deflate the cuff to zero and wait 30 to 60 seconds before reattempting the reading. This allows blood flow to return to the extremity, ensuring a more accurate reading the second time. It is important to ensure that the cuff is fully deflated and the appropriate wait time is given to obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement.

4. The healthcare professional retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer to the client? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.7 mL
• D. 0.9 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, divide the ordered dose (3 mg) by the concentration (4 mg/mL). 3 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the correct dose to administer is 0.8 mL.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.

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