Nursing Elites

1. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?

• A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
• B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
• C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
• D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.

2. The healthcare provider is providing passive range of motion (ROM) exercises to the hip and knee for a client who is unconscious. After supporting the client's knee with one hand, what action should the healthcare provider take next?

• A. Raise the bed to a comfortable working level.
• B. Bend the client's knee.
• C. Move the knee toward the chest as far as it will go.
• D. Cradle the client's heel.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When providing passive ROM exercises to the hip and knee for an unconscious client, it is essential to support the joints of the knee and ankle. The next action should be to cradle the client's heel and gently move the limb in a slow, smooth, firm, but gentle manner. This helps maintain joint mobility and prevent contractures.

3. What type of technique should the nurse observe when preparing to insert an indwelling catheter?

• A. Clean technique.
• B. Medical Asepsis.
• C. Isolation Protocol.
• D. Sterile Technique.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When inserting an indwelling catheter, the nurse must observe sterile technique to minimize the risk of infections. Sterile technique involves using sterile equipment and maintaining a sterile field to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract.

4. During a sterile procedure at a client's bedside, a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field. What is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Report the incident to the supervisor for aseptic technique violation.
• B. Allow the completion of the procedure.
• C. Inquire about the contamination of the glove and sterile field.
• D. Identify the breach in surgical asepsis and provide a new set of sterile supplies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario where a healthcare provider contaminates a sterile glove and the sterile field during a procedure, it is crucial to identify any breach in surgical asepsis. Any potential contamination should be considered compromised, and the nurse must act promptly to maintain sterility by providing a fresh set of sterile supplies for the procedure to continue safely.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.
• B. Administer furosemide (Lasix) IV push.
• C. Insert a Foley catheter to monitor urine output.
• D. Position the client in a high Fowler's position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a non-rebreather mask is the priority intervention for a client with pulmonary edema to improve oxygenation and address respiratory distress. Adequate oxygenation is essential to support vital organ function. Administering furosemide intravenously, inserting a Foley catheter to monitor urine output, and positioning the client in a high Fowler's position are important interventions but are secondary to ensuring optimal oxygenation in this client with pulmonary edema.

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