Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing wound care to a client with a stage 3 pressure ulcer that has a large amount of eschar. The wound care prescription states 'clean the wound and then apply collagenase.' Collagenase is a debriding agent. The prescription does not specify a cleaning method. Which technique should the healthcare provider use to cleanse the pressure ulcer?

• A. Lightly coat the wound with povidone-iodine solution
• B. Irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline
• C. Flush the wound with sterile hydrogen peroxide
• D. Remove the eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to cleanse a wound when the prescription does not specify a cleaning method is to irrigate the wound with sterile normal saline. Sterile normal saline is the preferred solution for wound cleaning as it is gentle and does not damage healthy tissues. It helps in removing debris and maintaining a moist environment conducive to healing. Povidone-iodine solution and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on tissues and delay wound healing. Removing eschar with a wet-to-dry dressing is a mechanical debridement method and should not be done without proper assessment and healthcare provider's order.

2. When assisting a client from the bed to a chair, which procedure is best for the nurse to follow?

• A. Place the chair parallel to the bed, with its back toward the head of the bed, and assist the client in moving to the chair.
• B. With the nurse's feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's knees, stand and pivot the client into the chair.
• C. Assist the client to a standing position by gently lifting upward underneath the axillae.
• D. Stand beside the client, place the client's arms around the nurse's neck, and gently move the client to the chair.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Option B is the best procedure for the nurse to follow when assisting a client from the bed to a chair. This option emphasizes the correct positioning of the nurse with feet spread apart and knees aligned with the client's, providing a stable base of support. By standing and pivoting the client into the chair, the nurse can maintain control and stability, especially around the client's knees, ensuring a safe transfer.

3. During a urethral catheterization on a female, where would the healthcare provider observe the urethral meatus after separating the labia?

• A. Between the vaginal orifice and the anus.
• B. Between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice.
• C. Just above the clitoris.
• D. Within the vaginal canal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct location of the urethral meatus in females is between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice. When performing a urethral catheterization, it is crucial to identify this anatomical landmark for correct insertion of the catheter. Choice A is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located between the vaginal orifice and the anus. Choice C is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located just above the clitoris. Choice D is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not within the vaginal canal.

4. A client's blood pressure reading is 156/94 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Inform the client that the blood pressure is high and that the reading needs to be verified by another nurse.
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to report the reading and obtain a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• C. Replace the cuff with a larger one to ensure a proper fit for the client and increase arm comfort.
• D. Compare the current reading with the client's previously documented blood pressure readings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first in this situation is to compare the current blood pressure reading with the client's previously documented readings. This comparison will provide valuable information about what is normal for this specific client, helping to determine if the current reading represents a significant change or if it falls within the client's usual range. By reviewing the client's past readings, the nurse can assess trends, variations, and if the current reading is an isolated high value or part of a pattern, guiding appropriate decision-making. Informing the client about the high reading (Choice A) or contacting the healthcare provider for medication (Choice B) should come after assessing the client's history. Replacing the cuff (Choice C) is not necessary at this point and does not address the immediate need to compare the readings for appropriate intervention.

5. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

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