Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of fluid volume excess. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Measure the client's intake and output.
• D. Restrict dietary sodium intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restricting dietary sodium intake (D) is the most critical intervention for a client with fluid volume excess to prevent further fluid retention. Encouraging increased fluid intake (A) would exacerbate the issue by adding more fluid to the body. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (B) is more relevant for respiratory issues than fluid volume excess. While measuring intake and output (C) is important for assessing fluid balance, restricting sodium intake is the priority as it helps manage fluid levels more effectively by reducing fluid retention.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

3. A 20-year-old female client with a noticeable body odor has refused to shower for the last 3 days. She states, 'I have been told that it is harmful to bathe during my period.' Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Accept and document the client's wish to refrain from bathing.
• B. Offer to give the client a bed bath, avoiding the perineal area.
• C. Obtain written brochures about menstruation to give to the client.
• D. Teach the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation to the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority for the nurse is to educate the client on the importance of personal hygiene during menstruation. Although it's crucial to respect the client's beliefs, providing education ensures the client receives accurate information to make informed decisions about her hygiene practices. By offering teaching first, the nurse can address any misconceptions or concerns the client may have while promoting optimal hygiene practices for overall well-being. Choice A should not be the first action as it does not address the client's potential misinformation about hygiene. Choice B is not ideal as it only offers a temporary solution without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C is not the priority as the immediate concern is the client's personal hygiene practices.

4. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Use an electronic sphygmomanometer to take the BP every 30 minutes.
• B. Retake the blood pressure in the same arm, deflating the cuff slowly.
• C. Ask another healthcare provider to recheck the blood pressure to compare results.
• D. Obtain another blood pressure cuff and retake the blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.

5. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most beneficial?

• A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care.
• B. Provide the wife with information about hospice.
• C. Encourage the wife to visit during and after painful treatments are completed.
• D. Refer the wife to a support group for family members of those dying of cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During this challenging time of dealing with a terminal cancer diagnosis, involving the wife in the care process can be highly beneficial. By asking the wife how she would like to participate in the client’s care, it allows her to feel more in control and connected. This approach fosters a collaborative care environment, ensuring that the wife's preferences and needs are taken into consideration. Providing information about hospice (choice B) may be premature at this stage and could potentially overwhelm the family. Encouraging the wife to visit during and after painful treatments (choice C) may not address her need for involvement in decision-making. Referring the wife to a support group (choice D) is helpful but may not directly involve her in the care process of her husband.

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