Nursing Elites

1. During a urethral catheterization on a female, where would the healthcare provider observe the urethral meatus after separating the labia?

• A. Between the vaginal orifice and the anus.
• B. Between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice.
• C. Just above the clitoris.
• D. Within the vaginal canal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct location of the urethral meatus in females is between the clitoris and the vaginal orifice. When performing a urethral catheterization, it is crucial to identify this anatomical landmark for correct insertion of the catheter. Choice A is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located between the vaginal orifice and the anus. Choice C is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not located just above the clitoris. Choice D is incorrect as the urethral meatus is not within the vaginal canal.

2. While suctioning a client’s nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client’s oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client’s nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A stable oxygen saturation reading of 94% indicates that the nurse can continue with the suctioning procedure. It is within an acceptable range, and there is no immediate need to interrupt the procedure. Continuing with the suctioning will help maintain airway patency and promote adequate oxygenation. Choice B is incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unnecessary when the reading is stable. Choice C is incorrect as there is no evidence to support stopping the suctioning procedure solely based on the oxygen saturation reading of 94%. Choice D is not the best action at this point, as applying an oxygen mask is not indicated when the oxygen saturation is stable and within an acceptable range.

3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

4. A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
• B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
• C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
• D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.

5. The client is receiving discharge teaching for a new diagnosis of asthma. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should use my inhaler as soon as I begin to feel short of breath.
• B. I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack.
• C. I should use my inhaler 30 minutes before exercise.
• D. I should rinse my mouth after using my inhaler.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement 'I should avoid using my inhaler unless I am having an asthma attack' (B) indicates a need for further teaching. It is important for clients to use their inhaler as prescribed, which may include regular use to prevent asthma attacks. Choice A is correct because using the inhaler when feeling short of breath can help manage asthma symptoms. Choice C is also correct as using the inhaler before exercise can prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice D is correct as rinsing the mouth after using the inhaler helps prevent oral thrush, a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Therefore, option B is the most concerning statement that needs clarification.

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