HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Quizlet
1. The mental health nurse plans to discuss a client's depression with the health care provider in the emergency department. There are two clients sitting across from the emergency department desk. Which nursing action is best?
- A. Only refer to the client by gender.
- B. Identify the client only by age.
- C. Avoid using the client's name.
- D. Discuss the client another time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action is to discuss the client another time. When discussing a client's confidential information, it is essential to ensure privacy and confidentiality. Given the presence of other clients in the immediate vicinity, it is inappropriate to discuss personal details about a client's condition openly. Waiting for a more private setting is crucial to uphold the client's right to privacy and confidentiality. Choices A, B, and C are not appropriate because referring to the client only by gender, age, or avoiding the client's name does not address the issue of discussing confidential information in a public setting, which compromises the client's privacy and confidentiality.
2. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?
- A. Monitor the client’s urine output
- B. Check for abdominal tenderness
- C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
- D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.
3. When caring for an immobile client, what nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?
- A. Risk for fluid volume deficit.
- B. Impaired gas exchange.
- C. Risk for impaired skin integrity.
- D. Altered tissue perfusion.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for an immobile client, the nursing diagnosis with the highest priority is impaired gas exchange. This is because impaired gas exchange implies difficulty with breathing, which is essential for sustaining life. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for all bodily functions, and any impairment in gas exchange can lead to serious complications, making it the priority nursing diagnosis to address in an immobile client. Choices A, C, and D are important considerations as well when caring for an immobile client, but they are secondary to impaired gas exchange. Risk for fluid volume deficit may occur due to immobility, but ensuring proper gas exchange takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's immediate survival. Risk for impaired skin integrity is a concern in immobile clients but does not pose an immediate threat to life like impaired gas exchange. Altered tissue perfusion is also critical but is usually a consequence of impaired gas exchange, reinforcing the priority of addressing gas exchange first.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.
5. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
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