Nursing Elites

1. A client is 2 days post-op from thoracic surgery and is complaining of incisional pain. The client last received pain medication 2 hours ago. He is rating his pain as a 5 on a 1-10 scale. After calling the provider, what is the nurse's next action?

• A. Instruct the client to use guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing
• B. Provide at least 20 minutes of back massage and gentle effleurage
• C. Encourage the client to watch TV
• D. Place a hot water circulation device, such as an Aqua K pad, to the operative site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, since no additional pain medication is available, the nurse should recommend non-pharmacological pain management techniques. Guided imagery and slow rhythmic breathing can help the client manage incisional pain effectively. These techniques can provide distraction and relaxation, potentially reducing the perception of pain without the need for additional medication.

2. The healthcare provider obtains a BP reading of 100/88 in the right arm of a client whose blood pressure is typically 120/60 in the same arm. What action should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. Use an electronic sphygmomanometer to take the BP every 30 minutes.
• B. Retake the blood pressure in the same arm, deflating the cuff slowly.
• C. Ask another healthcare provider to recheck the blood pressure to compare results.
• D. Obtain another blood pressure cuff and retake the blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should first retake the blood pressure in the right arm, deflating the cuff slowly, because a low systolic and high diastolic blood pressure measurement is often the result of deflating the cuff too rapidly. Taking the BP in the same arm ensures consistency and accuracy of the measurement.

3. To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
• C. Two inches below the acromion process
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.

4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

5. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.

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