HESI RN
HESI Quizlet Fundamentals
1. What is the most effective way to implement a teaching plan?
- A. Teach the information that the learner wants to learn first.
- B. Streamline the teaching plan to include only essential information.
- C. Present to the learner all the necessary information to meet the objectives.
- D. Provide the learner with written material to review before teaching sessions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most effective way to implement a teaching plan is to teach the information that the learner wants to learn first. Teaching should be learner-centered, responding to the individual's needs and preferences. Learning is most successful when it addresses the specific interests and goals of the learner, as it increases motivation and engagement. By starting with what the learner is interested in, you can create a more effective and engaging learning experience.
2. How many drops per minute should a client weighing 182 pounds receive if a nurse mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min? The drip factor is 60 gtt/ml.
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To determine the drops per minute for the client, first convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms: 182/2.2 = 82.73 kg. Calculate the dosage by multiplying 5 mcg by the client's weight in kg: 5 mcg/kg/min × 82.73 kg = 413.65 mcg/min. Find the concentration of the solution in mcg/ml by dividing 250 ml by 50,000 mcg (50 mg): 250 ml/50,000 mcg = 200 mcg/ml. As the client needs 413.65 mcg/min and the solution is 200 mcg/ml, the client should receive 2.07 ml per minute. Finally, using the drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, multiply the ml per minute by the drip factor: 60 gtt/ml × 2.07 ml/min = 124.28 gtt/min, which rounds to 124 gtt/min. Therefore, the client should receive 124 drops per minute. Choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the client's weight, dosage, concentration of the solution, and drip factor.
3. During the insertion of a nasogastric tube (NGT), the client begins to cough and gag. What action should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Stop advancing the tube and allow the client to rest
- B. Remove the tube and try again after a few minutes
- C. Continue inserting the tube while the client sips water
- D. Withdraw the tube slightly and pause before continuing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client begins to cough and gag during the insertion of a nasogastric tube, withdrawing the tube slightly and pausing is the appropriate action. This technique helps prevent further irritation, gives the client a moment to recover, and allows for a smoother continuation of the insertion process. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to rest without adjusting the tube position might not address the issue. Choice B is incorrect as removing the tube without addressing the cause of coughing and gagging may lead to repeated discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as continuing to insert the tube while the client is experiencing difficulties can increase discomfort and potential complications.
4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.
5. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
- A. BP 142/88 mmHg
- B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
- C. Radial pulse volume is +3
- D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.
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