Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is working in an occupational health clinic when an employee walks in and states that he was struck by lightning while working in a truck. The client is alert but reports feeling faint. Which assessment will the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Pulse characteristics
• B. Open airway
• C. Entrance and exit wounds
• D. Cervical spine injury

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a person is struck by lightning, it can cause an electrical shock that may affect the heart rhythm. Therefore, assessing pulse characteristics is crucial as lightning can act as a natural defibrillator. Monitoring the pulse rate and regularity will help determine if there are any cardiac abnormalities that need immediate attention. Open airway, entrance and exit wounds, and cervical spine injury assessments are also important but assessing pulse characteristics takes precedence in this situation to address potential cardiac issues.

2. When planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter, which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. Self-care deficit
• B. Functional incontinence
• C. Fluid volume deficit
• D. High risk for infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The highest priority nursing diagnosis when planning care for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is 'High risk for infection.' Indwelling urinary catheters pose a significant risk of infection due to their direct contact with the urinary system. Preventing and managing infections is crucial in the care of these clients. Monitoring for signs of infection, following proper catheter care protocols, and maintaining aseptic technique during catheter maintenance are essential steps to prevent complications associated with catheter-related infections. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority because in this case, the immediate concern is the risk of infection associated with the presence of the urinary catheter. While self-care deficit, functional incontinence, and fluid volume deficit are important considerations in overall patient care, they are not as critical as preventing potentially serious infections related to the indwelling urinary catheter.

3. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

4. To avoid nerve injury, what location should the nurse select to administer a 3 mL IM injection?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
• C. Two inches below the acromion process
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the preferred location for administering large volume IM injections to avoid nerve injury. This site is situated away from major nerves and blood vessels, reducing the risk of complications associated with injecting into other areas. The ventrogluteal site allows for deep muscle penetration and is recommended for injections over 2 mL in volume to ensure proper dispersion and absorption of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the outer upper quadrant of the buttock is not the recommended site for large volume injections, two inches below the acromion process is a location for a deltoid injection, and the vastus lateralis is typically used for smaller volume injections.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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