Nursing Elites

1. A client with a suspected kidney infection is admitted to the hospital for observation. Which action should the nurse implement to assess the client’s kidney function?

• A. Monitor the client’s urine output
• B. Check for abdominal tenderness
• C. Evaluate the client’s fluid intake
• D. Inspect the client’s skin for edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring urine output is the most direct way to assess kidney function as it provides crucial information about the kidneys’ ability to filter waste and produce urine. Changes in urine output can indicate potential issues with kidney function, such as decreased filtration or impaired excretion of waste products.

2. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

3. Following a craniotomy, why did the nurse position the client in low Fowler's position?

• A. To promote comfort.
• B. To promote drainage from the operation site.
• C. To promote thoracic expansion.
• D. To prevent circulatory overload.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Positioning the client in low Fowler's position after a craniotomy is essential to promote drainage from the operation site. This position helps prevent fluid accumulation, facilitates the removal of excess fluid or blood, and aids in the healing process. Choice A is incorrect because comfort, while important, is not the primary reason for this specific positioning. Choice C is incorrect as thoracic expansion is not the main concern following a craniotomy. Choice D is incorrect as circulatory overload is not typically addressed by positioning in low Fowler's position post-craniotomy.

4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

5. During a clinic visit, the mother of a 7-year-old reports to the nurse that her child is often awake until midnight playing and is then very difficult to awaken in the morning for school. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain in response to the mother's report?

• A. The occurrence of any episodes of sleep apnea
• B. The child's blood pressure, pulse, and respirations
• C. Length of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep that the child is experiencing
• D. Description of the family's home environment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In response to the mother's report, the nurse should assess the family's home environment first to identify any factors that may hinder the establishment of bedtime routines conducive to sleep. Factors such as noise, light, distractions, or other environmental aspects could be contributing to the child's difficulty falling asleep at a reasonable hour and waking up in the morning.

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