Nursing Elites

1. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Overdue menses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who needs to be placed in the prone position. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Place a pillow under the patient's lower legs.
• B. Turn the head toward one side with a large, soft pillow.
• C. Position legs flat against the bed.
• D. Raise the head of the bed to 45 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing a pillow under the patient's lower legs when in the prone position is essential to allow dorsiflexion of the ankles and some knee flexion, which promote relaxation. This position also helps in maintaining proper alignment of the spine. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because turning the head, positioning legs flat against the bed, and raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees are not appropriate actions for a patient in the prone position. Turning the head to one side with a large, soft pillow is commonly done for patients in the supine position to maintain proper alignment and airway patency. Positioning legs flat against the bed is more suitable for a patient in a supine or semi-fowler's position. Raising the head of the bed to 45 degrees is typically done for patients who need semi-fowler's positioning for respiratory support or to prevent aspiration.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. When lifting an object, spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
• B. Always lift objects with your back straight and not your legs.
• C. Avoid using any assistive devices.
• D. Bend at the waist to reach objects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.

4. The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials?

• A. Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal.
• B. Finely ground meat should be avoided early to provide iron.
• C. Egg white is not recommended early to increase protein intake.
• D. Solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Introducing solid foods one at a time, starting with cereal, is recommended to monitor for any food allergies or intolerances in infants. Choice B is incorrect as finely ground meat should be introduced later due to the risk of choking and is not necessary for iron intake. Choice C is incorrect as egg white should be avoided early due to the risk of allergies. Choice D is incorrect as solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle to prevent overfeeding and promote healthy eating habits.

5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

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