Nursing Elites

1. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Overdue menses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.

2. A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
• B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
• C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
• D. Speak softly to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.

3. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
• B. Increase the infusion rate
• C. Administer a bolus of fluid
• D. Replace the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

4. While assisting a client with a meal, the client suddenly grabs at their neck with both hands and appears frightened. The appropriate nursing action is to:

• A. Ask the client if they are choking
• B. Perform abdominal thrusts
• C. Call for emergency help
• D. Check the client’s airway

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when a client suddenly grabs at their neck and appears frightened is to ask if they are choking. This allows the nurse to gather more information from the client directly. Performing abdominal thrusts (choice B) should only be done if the client is unable to speak, cough, or breathe. Calling for emergency help (choice C) should be done after assessing the situation and confirming choking. Checking the client's airway (choice D) is important but should come after confirming that the client is choking.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer gentamicin 2 mg/kg via IV bolus to a client who weighs 220 lb. How many mg should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 200 mg
• B. 100 mg
• C. 160 mg
• D. 180 mg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the dosage correctly, the weight in pounds must first be converted to kilograms. 220 lb / 2.2 = 100 kg. Then, multiply the weight in kg by the dosage of 2 mg/kg: 2 mg/kg × 100 kg = 200 mg. Therefore, the correct dosage to administer is 200 mg, which is closest to option A. Option C (160 mg) is incorrect because it does not match the calculated dosage. Options B (100 mg) and D (180 mg) are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation.

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