Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?

• A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
• B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
• C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
• D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.

2. When teaching a client and their family how to care for the client’s tracheostomy at home, which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors
• B. Maintain a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care
• C. Do not remove the outer cannula for routine cleaning
• D. Clean around the stoma with normal saline solution

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. This practice helps protect the stoma from foreign particles and temperature changes, reducing the risk of infection. Maintaining a sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care (choice B) is important to prevent infections but is not specific to outdoor care. Removing the outer cannula for routine cleaning (choice C) is not recommended as it may cause trauma or dislodgment of the tracheostomy tube. Cleaning around the stoma with povidone-iodine (choice D) is not advisable as it can be irritating to the skin and may impair the healing process.

3. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

5. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

• A. Maintain the airway
• B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
• C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
• D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

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