Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is instructing an AP about caring for a client who has a low platelet count. Which of the following instructions is the priority for measuring vital signs for this client?

• A. Avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally.
• B. Count the client’s radial pulse for 30 seconds and multiply it by 2.
• C. Count the client’s respirations discreetly.
• D. Allow the client to rest for 5 minutes before measuring their BP.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally. Rectal temperatures can cause bleeding in clients with low platelet counts. It is crucial to avoid invasive methods that could increase the risk of bleeding or discomfort. Choice B, counting the radial pulse, is not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client with low platelet count. Choice C, counting respirations discreetly, is important for accuracy but is not the priority when considering the risk of bleeding. Choice D, letting the client rest before measuring blood pressure, is beneficial but is not the priority in preventing potential harm due to low platelet counts.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.3 mL
• B. 0.25 mL
• C. 0.4 mL
• D. 0.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.

3. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
• B. Only review the client’s current medications.
• C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
• D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid-volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Increase in hematocrit
• B. Increase in respiratory rate
• C. Decrease in heart rate
• D. Decrease in capillary refill time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fluid-volume deficit causes tachycardia. With correction of the imbalance, the heart rate should return to the expected range. An increase in hematocrit (Choice A) would indicate hemoconcentration, not a successful fluid replacement. An increase in respiratory rate (Choice B) could indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, not improvement in fluid volume status. A decrease in capillary refill time (Choice D) may indicate improved peripheral perfusion but is not a direct indicator of fluid replacement success.

Similar Questions