Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Place the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed
• B. Position the wheelchair parallel to the bed
• C. Place the wheelchair in front of the bed
• D. Have the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?

• A. Tap just below the knee
• B. Tap on the upper thigh
• C. Tap on the ankle
• D. Tap on the lower leg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.

4. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
• B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
• C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
• D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.

5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?

• A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
• B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
• C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
• D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.

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