Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

2. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's fluid and electrolyte status. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. BUN 15 mg/dL
• B. Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Sodium 143 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L is above the expected reference range, indicating hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to serious complications such as dysrhythmias, making it important for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and C fall within normal ranges and do not pose an immediate risk to the client's health, so they would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider. Elevated BUN or creatinine levels may indicate kidney dysfunction, while a sodium level of 143 mEq/L falls within the normal range for adults and does not typically require urgent intervention.

5. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
• B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
• C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
• D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.

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