HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Saturated abdominal dressing
- C. Pain level of 8/10
- D. Temperature of 100.4°F
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Morning stiffness
- B. Joint deformities
- C. Weight loss
- D. Fever
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.
- A. Administer medication in the abdomen.
- B. Administer medication in the thigh.
- C. Administer medication in the upper arm.
- D. Administer medication in the buttock.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.
4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
5. When should the nurse plan to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity as ordered by a client's provider?
- A. In the morning upon rising.
- B. Immediately after the client eats breakfast.
- C. Before the client goes to bed.
- D. After the client has had a drink of water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct time to collect a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is in the morning upon rising. This timing ensures the most concentrated sample as sputum produced overnight tends to accumulate and sit in the airways, providing a quality sample for testing. Collecting the specimen immediately after eating breakfast (choice B) may introduce food particles that could contaminate the sample. Collecting it before bed (choice C) may lead to a diluted sample due to daily activities. Collecting the specimen after having a drink of water (choice D) can also result in a diluted sample, impacting the accuracy of the test results.
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