Nursing Elites

1. When using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position
• B. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
• C. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output
• D. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This calculation helps ensure an accurate measurement of the client's actual urine output by accounting for the irrigation fluid introduced into the catheter. Placing the client in a side-lying position (Choice A) is not directly related to the irrigation procedure. Instilling a specific volume of irrigation fluid (Choice B) may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's order. Using a 20 mL syringe for irrigation (Choice D) is a matter of equipment choice and does not directly impact the calculation of urine output in this context.

2. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

3. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

4. The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modifications. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. If I exercise at least twice weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
• B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
• C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
• D. My blood level of low-density lipoproteins needs to increase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Limiting intake of beef to 4 ounces per week is an effective dietary modification to manage high cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because the frequency and duration of exercise alone may not be sufficient to lower cholesterol significantly. Choice B is incorrect as proteins, including lean sources like poultry and fish, can be a part of a healthy diet. Choice D is incorrect as low-density lipoproteins, known as bad cholesterol, should be decreased, not increased, for heart health.

5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

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