HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position
- B. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
- C. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output
- D. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This calculation helps ensure an accurate measurement of the client's actual urine output by accounting for the irrigation fluid introduced into the catheter. Placing the client in a side-lying position (Choice A) is not directly related to the irrigation procedure. Instilling a specific volume of irrigation fluid (Choice B) may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's order. Using a 20 mL syringe for irrigation (Choice D) is a matter of equipment choice and does not directly impact the calculation of urine output in this context.
2. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?
- A. Chocolate pudding.
- B. Graham crackers.
- C. Sugar-free gelatin.
- D. Apple slices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.
3. A healthcare provider is preparing to perform mouth care for an unresponsive client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider plan to take?
- A. Raise the level of the bed
- B. Administer mouth care with the client in a supine position
- C. Use a tongue depressor to open the mouth
- D. Place the client in a prone position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Raising the bed level is the correct action to facilitate easier access for mouth care in an unresponsive client. This position enhances the safety and comfort of both the client and the healthcare provider. Administering mouth care with the client in a supine position (lying flat on their back) can increase the risk of aspiration. Using a tongue depressor to open the mouth is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and potential injury. Placing the client in a prone position (lying face down) is contraindicated for mouth care and can compromise the client's airway.
4. How can the LPN/LVN best handle the situation of a postoperative client being kept awake by a neighboring client with dementia who sings all night?
- A. Tell the neighboring client to stop singing.
- B. Close the doors to both clients' rooms at night.
- C. Give the complaining client the prescribed sedative as needed.
- D. Move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best way to handle the situation in this scenario is to move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall. This solution is considerate to both clients because it addresses the issue by providing a quieter environment for the client with dementia while allowing the postoperative client to rest. Choice A is inappropriate as it does not address the root cause of the problem and may not be feasible or respectful. Choice B of closing the doors may not effectively reduce the noise disturbance. Choice C of giving the complaining client sedatives should be the last resort and not the initial solution, as it does not address the underlying issue causing the disturbance.
5. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Heart rate
- C. Abdominal tenderness
- D. Overdue menses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.
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