HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
- D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
3. A client with an NG tube is receiving intermittent feedings through an open system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Rinse the feeding bag with water between feedings
- B. Tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°
- C. Make sure the enteral formula is at room temperature
- D. Wipe the top of the formula can with alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client to keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30°. Elevating the head of the bed prevents aspiration of the enteral formula, which is a priority in caring for a client with an NG tube. This action helps in reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While rinsing the feeding bag, ensuring the enteral formula temperature, and maintaining cleanliness are important aspects of enteral feeding care, the priority is to prevent aspiration by keeping the head of the bed elevated. These actions can be implemented after ensuring the client's safety by maintaining the correct bed position.
4. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give to the client?
- A. We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it.
- B. You should take a different type of antibiotic this time.
- C. A rash is a common reaction and is not usually concerning.
- D. You can take the same antibiotic again if needed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to document the exact medication taken to identify potential allergies and prevent adverse reactions. This is important as the client developed a rash previously while taking an antibiotic, indicating a possible allergic reaction. Choice B is not appropriate as switching antibiotics without proper evaluation can be risky. Choice C is incorrect as rashes should not be dismissed without further investigation, especially in the context of taking medication. Choice D is also not recommended as re-taking the same antibiotic without clarifying the allergic reaction can lead to a potentially severe outcome.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Instruct the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze.
- B. Hold a finger 46 cm (18 in) away from the client’s eyes.
- C. Ask the client to cover their right eye during assessment of the left eye.
- D. Position the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.
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