Nursing Elites

1. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

2. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
• B. Give information about advance directives
• C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
• D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.

3. How should the nurse transcribe the dosage of this medication on the client's medical record?

• A. 0.3 mg
• B. 0.3 mg
• C. 0.30 mg
• D. 3/10 mg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct way to transcribe the dosage of three tenths of a milligram of levothyroxine IV STAT is 0.3 mg. When expressing decimals less than 1, there should be a leading zero before the decimal point. Choice A is incorrect (.3 mg) because it lacks the leading zero. Choice C (0.30 mg) is incorrect as it includes a trailing zero after the decimal point, which is unnecessary. Choice D (3/10 mg) is incorrect as it presents the dosage as a fraction, which is not the standard format for transcribing medication dosages. Therefore, B (0.3 mg) is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this prescription on the client's medical record.

4. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:

• A. Administer cardiac compressions
• B. Attach the AED pads to the client
• C. Check for a pulse
• D. Perform rescue breaths

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.

5. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
• B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
• C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
• D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.

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