HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soups are often high in sodium content, which can be harmful to individuals with hypertension following a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, grilled chicken, and whole grain bread are generally healthier options with lower sodium content and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits provide essential vitamins and minerals, grilled chicken is a lean protein source, and whole grain bread offers fiber and nutrients without excessive sodium levels. Avoiding canned soup aligns with the goal of reducing sodium intake to manage hypertension.
2. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
3. A client with iron-deficiency anemia asks a nurse why the Z-track method is necessary for administering iron dextran. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It decreases the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel.
- B. It delays medication absorption.
- C. It minimizes tissue irritation.
- D. It accelerates medication excretion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Z-track method is used to minimize tissue irritation by sealing the medication in the muscle. This technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of irritation and staining at the injection site. Option A about decreasing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel is not correct as the primary purpose of the Z-track method is to prevent tissue irritation. Option B stating it delays medication absorption is incorrect as the Z-track method does not affect the rate of medication absorption. Option D mentioning it accelerates medication excretion is incorrect as the Z-track method does not impact medication excretion but rather focuses on minimizing tissue irritation.
4. A client's readiness to learn about insulin administration is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?
- A. ''I can concentrate best in the morning.''
- B. ''It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.''
- C. ''I'm wondering why I need to learn this.''
- D. ''You will have to talk to my wife about this.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client's statement about the best time to concentrate indicates readiness for learning. This statement shows an awareness and interest in learning. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates a barrier to learning due to not having glasses. Choice C is incorrect as it shows a lack of understanding or motivation for learning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a lack of personal involvement or responsibility in the learning process since the client is deflecting the responsibility to someone else.
5. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?
- A. Absence of a pulse
- B. Presence of a pulse
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.
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