Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

• A. Side-lying
• B. Supine
• C. Semi-Fowler’s
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.

3. An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts.
• B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility.
• C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the LPN/LVN should implement is to notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. This is crucial to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to address the family's request for hospice care and to coordinate the necessary care for the resident. While reaffirming the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts is important, notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence in this situation. Transferring the client to a hospice inpatient facility and preparing the family for the client's impending death are significant actions but should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure proper coordination of care.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

Similar Questions