Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer oxygen via a nasal cannula.
• B. Measure the client's vital signs.
• C. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via a nasal cannula is the priority action for a client experiencing chest pain due to coronary artery disease. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation, reduce myocardial workload, and relieve chest pain by increasing oxygen delivery to the heart muscle. While measuring vital signs, obtaining a 12-lead ECG, and encouraging pursed-lip breathing are important interventions, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation to address the potential hypoxemia associated with chest pain in a client with a history of coronary artery disease.

2. A client is postoperative following knee arthroplasty and requires the use of a thigh-length sequential compression device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure two fingers can fit under the sleeves.
• B. Ensure the device is not too tight to impede circulation.
• C. Position the client comfortably before applying the device.
• D. Use the device continuously to prevent blood clots.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when applying a thigh-length sequential compression device to a postoperative client is to ensure that two fingers can fit under the sleeves. This action helps prevent the device from being too tight, which could impede circulation. Choice B is incorrect because the device should not be too tight, as it could lead to circulation issues. Choice C is incorrect as the client should be in a comfortable position, not necessarily supine. Choice D is incorrect as sequential compression devices are typically used continuously to prevent blood clots.

3. The nurse observes an UAP positioning a newly admitted client who has a seizure disorder. The client is supine, and the UAP is placing soft pillows along the side rails. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to obtain soft blankets to secure to the side rails instead of pillows
• B. Ensure that the UAP has placed pillows effectively to protect the client
• C. Ask the UAP to use some pillows to prop the client in a side-lying position
• D. Assume responsibility for placing the pillows while the UAP completes another task

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using soft blankets to secure to the side rails provides better protection during a seizure as they are more secure and less likely to shift compared to pillows. This action helps prevent injury to the client by minimizing the risk of falling or hitting the side rails during a seizure. Choices B and C do not address the issue of using more secure materials. Choice D is inappropriate as it is important for the nurse to ensure the safety and well-being of the client by using the most appropriate protective measures.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Decreased calcium
• B. Elevated potassium
• C. Increased sodium
• D. Low hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

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