Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

2. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has decreased circulation in his left leg. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Evaluate pedal pulses
• B. Assess skin temperature
• C. Check for capillary refill
• D. Measure the leg circumference

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating pedal pulses should be the first action taken as it provides immediate information about circulation. This assessment helps in determining the adequacy of blood flow in the client's leg. Assessing skin temperature, checking for capillary refill, and measuring leg circumference are important assessments; however, evaluating pedal pulses is the most crucial initial step in this scenario. Skin temperature assessment and capillary refill check can provide additional valuable information about perfusion, while measuring leg circumference is useful in monitoring for edema. Therefore, for a client with decreased circulation in the left leg, evaluating pedal pulses takes precedence over the other assessments.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and census overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Census overdue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high fever is a significant indicator of infection or other serious conditions, making it the priority finding. Elevated temperature indicates an immediate concern for infection, which can quickly escalate and lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. While heart rate, abdominal tenderness, and census overdue are important aspects to consider in the client's care, addressing the fever takes precedence due to its potential severity and implications for the client's health.

5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

Similar Questions