HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. When lifting an object, spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
- B. Always lift objects with your back straight and not your legs.
- C. Avoid using any assistive devices.
- D. Bend at the waist to reach objects.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.
2. The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
- B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
- C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
- D. Include a family member in the teaching session
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Administer the medication with the needle at a 30-degree angle.
- D. Administer the medication with the needle at a 15-degree angle.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.
4. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
- A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
- B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
- C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
- D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.
5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?
- A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
- B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
- C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
- D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.
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