Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Hepatomegaly

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.

2. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

• A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
• B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
• C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
• D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.

3. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.

5. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

• A. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk
• B. Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk
• C. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk
• D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

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