a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta blocker which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

2. When assessing readiness to learn about insulin self-administration, what indicates the client is ready to learn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I can concentrate best in the morning.' Readiness to learn is indicated by the client's ability to focus and concentrate, as mentioned in the question. Choice B, 'I feel anxious about learning the process,' indicates apprehension and may hinder the learning process. Choice C, 'I have a lot of questions about insulin,' shows interest but does not directly indicate readiness to learn. Choice D, 'I am not sure if I can manage this at home,' reflects uncertainty and lack of confidence, which may suggest the client is not fully prepared to learn.

3. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

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